a) A complex interest scheme is always more profitable than a simple interest scheme.

b) The same amount of individual income is always subject to the same income tax.

c) Taxes are paid as upon receipt wages, as well as when it is spent.

D) The bank interest on a loan is always higher than the bank interest on a deposit.

Which of the following definitions best describes the essence of fiscal policy?

a) Fiscal policy is any activity government agencies, the result of which is a change in the money supply in the country.

b) Fiscal policy - these are the actions of the Central Bank of the country aimed at responding to the exchange rate of the national currency.

c) Fiscal policy is the actions of the Central Bank of the country to change the money supply and the availability of credit, taken in order to maintain price stability, ensure full employment and appropriate economic growth.

D) Fiscal policy - these are measures by the state to regulate the amount of its expenditures and / or incomes, applied in order to maintain price stability, ensure full employment and reasonable economic growth rates.

Public debt is...

A) the amount of state budget deficits (minus the amount of state budget surpluses) accumulated to date;

b) the excess of the expenditure part of the annual state budget over its revenue part;

c) the amount of debt of the state to other countries;

d) the amount of state debt to banks and other financial institutions.

Which fiscal policy measures (out of those listed below) would be most likely to reduce the budget deficit?

a) reducing the amount of taxes collected and reducing the amount of transfer payments.

B) an increase in the amount of taxes collected and a decrease in the amount of transfer payments.

c) an increase in the discount rate of interest and a decrease in reserve requirements;

d) an increase in the amount of taxes collected and an increase in the amount of transfer payments.

12. The budget exists:

a) only from the state;

b) the state and enterprises of the real sector of the economy;

B) everyone economic entities;

d) important structures at the federal level.

13. The structural deficit of the state budget is the difference between:

a) current government spending and revenues;

b) the actual deficit and budget deficit in conditions of full employment;

c) the current deficit and the amount of interest payments on the public debt;

D) current government spending and revenues that could go to the budget in conditions of full employment.

14. Which of the following items relate to state budget revenues (select 2 correct answers):

A) inheritance tax

b) net proceeds from raising funds from the free capital market;

c) transfer payments to the population;

D) customs duties.

15. Which of the following items relate to state budget expenditures:

A) payments on the public debt;

b) rent;

c) income from state property;

16. Built-in or automatic stabilizers include:

a) maintenance costs public debt;

B) income taxes and unemployment benefits;

c) expenses for the protection and protection of the natural environment;

d) customs duties and excises.

17. Applicable taxes can be assessed as regressive if the value of the average tax rate:

a) increases with income

b) does not change when income changes;

B) decreases as income increases

18. Applicable taxes can be assessed as proportional if the value of the average tax rate:

a) does not change with an increase in income;

b) does not change with decreasing income;

C) does not change with any change in income;

d) changes in accordance with changes in income;

19. Fiscal policy is automatic if the following parameters are changed:

a) the rate goes up income tax;

B) at a constant income tax rate, the amount of tax revenue increases;

c) increase the amount of deductions from wages to the pension fund.

The annual government budget is...

A) a plan of state revenues and expenditures for the year;

b) the amount of money in the account central bank, actually collected by the government for the year;

c) the amount of money available to the government;

d) the total amount of all receipts to the state treasury for the year.

Test on the topic "Unemployment"

1. Which of the following statements is correct?

The economically active population is the part of the working-age population that:

is employed, engaged in entrepreneurial activities, is public service, studies and does housework;

equal to the sum of employed and unemployed;

equal to the working-age population minus the unemployed;

equal to the sum of employed and able-bodied, but not employed.

2. The unemployed are:

part of the working-age population, which remains minus the employed;

part of the economically active, but non-working population, which remains minus persons who do not intend to work and therefore are not looking for work;

part of the economically active population, which remains minus the employed;

able-bodied individuals that don't work.

3. Which of the following statements is correct?

"If a person of working age does not work, he is unemployed." This statement

certainly true;

definitely not true;

true if this person does not study at a general education school or at the full-time department of a university;

true if the person is actively looking for a job by registering with the District Employment Service.

4. Which of the following statements is correct?

A person who is sick and temporarily unemployed falls into the category:

frictionally unemployed;

hidden unemployed;

not included in the total labor force;

5. Which of the following statements is correct?

A worker who quit voluntarily, looking for, but has not yet found a job, falls into the category:

frictionally unemployed;

hidden unemployed;

structurally unemployed;

outside the labor force.

Unemployment can be recognized as natural for the economy:

1. Friction

   Structural

   cyclical

   A) and B) are correct

With natural unemployment

cyclical unemployment is zero

the potential of the economy is realized

full employment is achieved

all answers are correct

no correct answer

Large unemployment benefit increases

cyclical unemployment

frictional unemployment

structural unemployment

The unemployment rate is measured as a percentage and is defined as the ratio of the number of unemployed to the number

the entire population

work force

able-bodied population

population of retirement age

The unemployment rate is usually higher among

skilled workforce

unskilled labor force

youth

A) and C) are correct

B) and C) are correct

1. Tests. Topic Fundamentals of the theory of market demand and supply The law of demand assumes that

   Tests

   MATERIALS BY COURSE "MICROECONOMICS" Tests. Subject 2. Basics... Which from next statements is right? Both items are normal. No one from goods not is... resources. Which from given drawings... will exist unemployment, If...

2. Guidelines for independent work on the course "Economic theory" for students of economic specialties Vladikavkaz 2009

   Guidelines

   This is what is used How money. 3. Which from given definitions Right reflects the essence of the product: a) ... By prices in effect at the time of purchase; d) minimum production costs 30. Which from next statements is right ...

3. Educational and methodological complex on "economic theory" Part 2

   Training and metodology complex

   Points for tests By one topic); By answers and... (AVC). 12. Which from next statements is right: a) accounting costs ... 4. B what from given cases firm... 108.8 Unemployment By population survey results By employment issues...

4. 
   ^ 38. Unlike psychotherapy, psychological counseling has the following goals:

   A) fully reveal the personal characteristics of the client

   b) listen to the client

   C) help the client to establish a connection between the actual problem and personal factors

   D) identify those connections that will help the client to look at himself in a new way and cope with difficulties
   ^ 39. R. May identifies four stages of psychological counseling; they do NOT include:
   

   ^ 40. Which of the following statements about active listening is NOT true:
   

   ^ 41. Which of the following is among the client's barriers that require the consultant to be able to overcome them in order to actively listen;

   A) lack of confidence in the consultant

   B) very strong emotions (anger, depression, anxiety)

   C) feelings of embarrassment

   D) cultural, gender, religious differences
   ^ 42. The purposes of paraphrasing do NOT include:

   A) changing the content of the client's statements in such a way that they acquire a therapeutic suggestive sound

   B) demonstrating to the client that he is being listened to and understood

   C) the ability for the client to clarify how his words are understood by the consultant

   D) Clarifying the client's own thoughts and feelings

   E) motivation for a more detailed disclosure of the situation under discussion

   ^ 43. Which of the following is not one of the basic principles of paraphrasing:

   A) brevity

   B) limitation to essential, from the point of view of the consultant, things

   C) focus on relevant content for the client

   D) introducing a suggestive element into the dialogue
   ^ 44. Which of the following statements correctly defines the reflection of the client's feelings in the consultant's work:

   A) clarification of the feelings and experiences expressed by the client

   B) the consultant's expression of the feelings that the client is talking about in the language of non-verbal communication

   C) verbalization of feelings not expressed by the client,
   about which the consultant guesses by non-verbal manifestations and features of the situation

   D) voicing those feelings that a person should have in the situation that the client describes
   ^ 45. The purposes of using the technique of reflection of feelings do NOT include:

   A) helping the client to identify his feelings

   B) the urge to talk about experiences in connection with the problem

   C) help to reduce emotional stress

   D) demonstrating to the client the inadequacy and maladaptiveness of his feelings

   E) demonstrating an empathic understanding of the client's problem

   E) creating a sense of security for the client
   ^ 46. ​​Which of the statements correctly describes the essence of the method of "attachment":

   A) explaining to the client exactly what his feelings are connected with

   B) confirmation of the normality of experiencing such feelings in a similar situation

   C) a verbal skill that combines a reflection of a feeling with a paraphrase of the content
   ^ 47. The use of introductory turns of the type: “It seemed to me that ... I had an assumption ...”, etc.:

   A) is undesirable in the work of a consultant, as it emphasizes his uncertainty

   B) emphasizes the right of the client to accept or not accept what the consultant has said

   C) undesirable, as it can drag out a consultative conversation

   ^ 48. Which of the following is among the factors that increase the risk of suicide:

   A) experiencing the loss or rupture of close relationships

   B) experiencing actual or expected changes in health status or living conditions (aging, retirement, financial problems, etc.)

   C) diseases with severe pain and / or disability

   D) Substance abuse or dependence

   D) depression

   E) cases of suicide in the family

   G) all of the above

   ^ 49. The main areas for improving the effectiveness of the consultative interview include all of the following EXCEPT:

   A) expanding the range of client options after working with a consultant

   B) creative and collaborative decision making

   C) the ability of the consultant to be congruent with the client

   D) breadth of the consultant's suggestive range

   ^ 50. The content of psychological counseling is determined by:
   

   ^ 51. Which statement correctly characterizes the preference for one or another methodological approach in psychological counseling:

   A) psychological counseling is the prerogative of a humanistic approach

   B) the most effective cognitive-behavioral psychological counseling

   C) any psychological counseling is based on psychodynamic theory

   D) the choice of methodological approach depends on the theoretical orientation of the consultant and the preferences of the client
   ^ 52. Internal freedom based on the ability to make decisions in a situation of choice and implement them is called:
   

   ^ 53. The system model of counseling does not include the stage:
   

   ^ 54. The stage of critical evaluation of the chosen alternatives for solving the problem is called:
   

   ^ 55. Stage of clarification and open discussion possible solution called:
   

   ^ 56. The analysis of the client's complaint does not include the component:
   

   ^ 57. The problem definition necessarily includes:

   A) an indication of what the client would like, but cannot change

   B) a specific form of indicating the desired assistance

   C) the formulation of a specific indication of certain events

   D) revealing the hidden component of the complaint
   ^ 58. The subject locus of a complaint does not include a complaint:
   
   ^ 59. Self-diagnosis expresses:
   

   ^ 60. The sincere interest of the client in changing his situation is called:
   

   ^ 61. Three zones of conflict are distinguished in the content of the complaint, except for:
   

   ^ 62. The content of the conflict is based on:
   

   ^ 63. The style of behavior in which a person seeks to adapt to external circumstances is called:
   

   ^ 64. Verbal methods of counseling do not include:
   

   ^ 65. Non-verbal methods of counseling do not include:
   

   ^ 66. Counseling errors include all of the above except:
   

   ^ 67. In the process of counseling, it is not recommended to use the following methods, except:
   

   ^ 68. Questions that require very short, one-word answers are called:
   

   ^ 70. The presentation of a psychologist's own opinion on a particular issue is called:
   

   A) concentration on feelings	B) expressing one's own feelings
   B) interpretation	D) informational message

   ^ Correct answers
   

   question number	Answers	Points	№ question	Answers	Points	№ question	Answers	Points
   1	1	1	25	3	1	49	4	1
   2	4	1	26	4	1	50	4	1
   3	3	1	27	4	1	51	4	1
   4	3	1	28	1	1	52	1	1
   5	3	1	29	2	1	53	4	1
   6	1	1	30	1	1	54	3	1
   7	4	1	31	2	1	55	2	1
   8	1	1	32	2	1	56	4	1
   9	3	1	33	1	1	57	1	1
   10	2	1	34	1	1	58	3	1
   11	4	1	35	3	1	59	2	1
   12	4	1	36	4	1	60	4	1
   13	4	1	37	4	1	61	3	1
   14	2	1	38	4	1	62	1	1
   15	3	1	39	5	1	63	2	1
   16	1	1	40	4	1	64	3	1
   17	2	1	41	2	1	65	4	1
   18	4	1	42	1	1	66	4	1
   19	4	1	43	4	1	67	4	1
   20	2	1	44	1	1	68	2	1
   21	3	1	45	4	1	69	3	1
   22	3	1	46	3	1	70	4	1
   23	3	1	47	2	1
   24	4	1	48	7	1

   On April 8, 2017, teachers, students and their parents were asked to independently determinethe level of assimilation of knowledge gained during the “Safe Internet Week” using the “Assessment of the level of digital literacy in managing personal data on the Internet” test. This test is taken from the educational and methodological manual for employees of the general education system "Practical psychology of security: personal data management on the Internet" by the authors Soldatova G.U., Priezzheva A.A., Olkina O.I., Shlyapnikova V.N., Self-testing is aimed at identifying gaps in the knowledge of the test-takers and will help in determining a further work plan in the direction of "Ensuring information security schoolchildren."

   ASSESSMENT OF THE LEVEL OF DIGITAL LITERACY

   FOR THE MANAGEMENT OF PERSONAL DATA ON THE INTERNET

   This test is aimed at assessing the level of digital literacy of schoolchildren in the field of personal data management on the Internet and can be used to assess the effectiveness of students mastering the program. The methodology is a set of 20 test items with one correct answer. The test takes 30-40 minutes to complete.

   Instruction

   You will be offered 20 tasks related to the security of handling personal data on the Internet. Answer options includeonly onecorrect. Your task is to choose and mark the option that you think is correct. The entire test takes no more than 40 minutes to complete.

   1. What information can be classified as personal data?

   A. Surname, name, patronymic.

   B. Date and place of birth.

   C. Place of study.

   D. Political and religious beliefs.

   2. Which of the given personal data allows you to uniquely identify the user in our country?

   A. First name, last name, year of birth.

   B. Last name, year of birth, school number.

   C. Name, Russian passport number, city of residence.

   D. First name, last name, city of residence.

   3. This summer, Masha Ivanova went to Tsarskoe Selo with her class. At the end of the tour, the class teacher took a group photo of the class against the backdrop of the Catherine Palace. The photo turned out to be successful, so the teacher posted it on his page on the social network with the caption “9 “B” in Tsarskoye Selo” and tagged several people on it, including Masha. What information about Masha Ivanova is contained in this entry?

   A. External data.

   B. Place of study.

   C. Location of the tour.

   D. Names of Masha Ivanova's classmates.

   E. All options offered.

   4. Vasya visited his friend Petya over the weekend. A couple of times he used a friend's computer to check out a new computer game online and read the news. What personal information of Vasya could be stored on Petya's computer?

   A. Search history.

   B. Website browsing history.

   D. Downloaded files.

   E. None of the proposed options.

   5. Ksyusha, being in a cafe with her friend Sveta, used her laptop to enter the browser. What should Ksyusha do to leave a minimum of personal information on Sveta's laptop?

   A. Clear browsing history after exiting the browser.

   B. Don't save passwords while you're online.

   C. Use incognito mode while browsing.

   D. Change user on laptop.

   E. Clean up the temporary files folder after working on the computer.

   6. Tanya met Kolya on the portal of the popular online game Lineage. For a long time they played for the same team and more than once helped each other out in virtual battles. Once Tanya was going to another raid, but at the last moment she found out about the control work in geometry and realized that she would not be able to take part in the battle. Kolya suggested that Tanya give the password to her account to Kolya's friend, who could replace her for a while in the game. What is the best thing for Tanya to do in such a situation?

   A. Kolya vouched for his friend, so you can safely give him the password.

   B. There is nothing wrong with giving the password to another player - it's just a game.

   C. Kolya's friend can give the password - even if he steals the account, it can be restored.

   D. Kolya's offer should be rejected, as the user agreement prohibits players from sharing the password with third parties.

   E. Tanya needs to collect as much information as possible about Kolya's friend, and then make a final decision.

   7. When registering on the site, you were asked for a phone number. When is it the safest?

   A. You register on a large and well-known online resource, for example, on the Mail.ru portal.

   B. You are making a purchase for the first time in an online store, on the website of which positive reviews other users.

   C. You register on a gaming portal recommended to you by your friends and acquaintances.

   D. You want to download a new movie on a file sharing service and you are required to register in the pop-up window.

   E. In all cases indicated above.

   8. Which of the following passwords can be considered the most secure?

   A. Superman Vasya 2005.

   B. QwErTy123456.

   C. [email protected];).

   D.Q1jk45)@da.

   E. [email protected][email protected]!

   9. Which of the ways to store an account password can be considered the most reliable?

   A. In a notebook in the bottom drawer of the desk.

   B. In a text file in a hidden folder on the computer.

   C. In a special program downloaded for free from the Internet.

   D. All of the above methods can be considered completely reliable.

   E. All of the above methods cannot be considered completely reliable.

   10. One evening, Anya discovered that someone had hacked into her account, posted indecent images on her wall and started sending insults to her friends in personal correspondence. Anya regained access to her account and changed her password, but it was too late. Many removed her from friends and added to the "black list", and someone even stopped talking at school. What should Anya do to restore her reputation?

   A. Remove all obnoxious posts from your page.

   B. Place a post on the page explaining the reasons for what happened and apologize to the readers.

   C. Change passwords for all accounts on other online resources.

   D. Try to talk personally with your closest friends and explain the situation to them.

   11. On the social network, Vova received a personal message informing him of an attempt to hack into his account from someone else's device. Vova was urged to follow the link in the message to change his password. What is the right thing to do in such a situation?

   B. Ignore the email and mark it as spam.

   C. Write back an angry letter criticizing the work of the social network.

   D. Log in to your social network account and change your password on your own.

   E. Reply to this letter and clarify the information.

   12. Mila decided to start leading healthy lifestyle life. She downloaded a fitness tracker to her smartphone, which allows you to record the distance traveled and the number of calories burned during sports. The application was free, but required access to a certain set of personal data and smartphone features. Which of these requirements can

   A. Access to the camera and media files stored on the device.

   B. Location and movement information.

   C. Ability to make in-app purchases.

   D. Sex, age, weight, height.

   E. All of the above requirements are reasonable.

   13. What personal information posted on the online resource should be removed from the search engine at the request of the user?

   A. Any group photo that contains a picture of that user.

   B. Reposting a user post posted in the public domain on the page of this user in a social network.

   C. Passport number or any other official document of the user.

   D. No personal information about the user is subject to mandatory deletion.

   E. Any personal information must be removed from the Internet at the user's request.

   14. What to do if the attackers hacked into your account on the online resource and changed the password and address of the mailbox to which the account was linked?

   A. Don't waste your energy on account recovery - you can always create a new one.

   B. Contact the resource administration with a request to restore access to your account.

   C. Contact the attackers with a request to return the account.

   D. Contact a familiar hacker with a request to hack your account again and return it to its rightful owner.

   E. This is a hopeless situation - a lost account, in principle, cannot be returned.

   15. Vlad - Natasha's desk mate and a very curious young man. Which of Vlad's actions will be a violation of Natasha's privacy?

   A. He told his classmates that Natasha was allergic to sweets.

   B. I took a picture of Natasha sleeping on the desk and posted this photo on a social network.

   C. I took a smartphone from Natasha's desk and looked at the call history.

   D. Read aloud the note that Natasha wrote to Vanya before the lesson.

   E. All of the above options.

   16. What types of Natasha's personal data can Vlad distribute with complete confidence that this will not harm her in any way?

   A. Phone number, full name parents, home address.

   B. Country of residence, school number, history of illnesses.

   C. Hobbies, school number and address, login from the page in the social network.

   D. Age, height and weight, grades in the journal.

   E. None of the listed types of data.

   17. Which of the statements is completely true?

   A. Everyone needs to protect their personal information and keep as much information about themselves as private as possible from other people.

   B. Each person is free to decide what information, and under what conditions, can be kept secret or shared with other people.

   C. It is useless to control your personal data on the Internet, so there is no point in worrying about it.

   D. Each person should provide as much information about themselves as possible, as this allows them to enjoy all the features of the Internet.

   E. None of the options listed.

   18. Olya broke up with Vasya and is now dating Anton. They often walk, take photos together and post them online. Olya still treats Vasya well, but does not want to upset him with photos with a new young man. What is the best thing for her to do?

   A. Restrict Vasya's access to your photos.

   B. Stop posting your photos on social media.

   C. Ask Vasya not to go to her page.

   D. Remove Vasya from friends.

   E. Add Vasya to the "black list".

   19. Choose the correct statement. Author's posts posted by users on social networks and blogs...

   A. They show the uniqueness of a person and always positively affect his reputation.

   B. They never contain personal information, so their publication does not entail serious consequences.

   C. They are rated differently by readers, so it is impossible to predict how the publication of a post will affect the reputation of its author.

   D. Always contain excessive personal information about a person, which can harm not only his reputation, but also personal safety.

   E. They do not contain anything good, because they indicate only a desire to show off.

   20. What rules should NOT be followed when publishing information on the Internet?

   A. Write posts, guided by the first emotional impulse, in order to convey to the reader a storm of their emotions.

   B. Publish information and comments about important facts and events only after they have been verified by several sources.

   C. Post data about another person online only if he has given his prior consent to do so.

   D. Evaluate published information from the point of view of various categories of users.

   E. All of the above rules are correct.

   Right answers

   1 - E, 2 - C, 3 - E, 4 - B, 5 - C, 6 - D, 7 - A, 8 - D, 9 - E, 10 - E, 11 -D, 12 - A, 13 - C, 14 - B, 15 - E, 16 - E, 17 - B, 18 - A, 19 - C, 20 - A.

   The level of mastering the program is assessed

   according to the following table:

   Number of correct answers Approximate score on a five-point scale

   17–20 Excellent

   14–16 Good

   10–13 Satisfactory

   Less than 10 Unsatisfactory

   A) With a parallel shift of the demand curve to the left, the value of the price elasticity of demand will increase for each price (in absolute value).
   B) With a parallel shift of the supply curve to the left, the price elasticity of supply will increase for each price.
   C) The appearance of substitutes for a product always contributes to a decrease in the elasticity of demand for this product.
   D) The appearance of new buyers in the market will affect the elasticity of demand for this product.
   The correct answer is B.

   Let's compare two situations: in one case, the product has no substitutes, and in the other case, they do. How will buyers react to a change in the price of this product - for example, to its increase? In the second case, buyers have the opportunity to switch to substitutes for a product that has become more expensive than other goods and services. In the first case, buyers do not have such an opportunity. Obviously, in the second case, buyers will respond to an increase in the price of a good (by buying a smaller amount of this good) to a greater extent than in the first. And the price elasticity of demand is the higher, the more the quantity demanded for this product changes with a change in its price. Thus, the appearance of substitutes for a product is a factor that contributes to an increase, rather than a decrease in the elasticity of demand for this product, as stated in answer C. At the same time, the statements given in answers A, B and D are correct. By condition, it is required to indicate an incorrect statement, and such is only the statement contained in answer B.
   Test 2.12. Prices for personal computers have risen sharply due to a decrease in the supply of personal computers. This could be the reason.
   A) salary growth for programmers and operators;
   B) lowering the salaries of programmers and operators;
   C) a decrease in the revenue of computer manufacturers;
   D) increase the revenue of computer manufacturers.
   The correct answer is B.
   Let's compare answers A and B. The supply of computers has decreased; since the text of the question does not say anything about the change in demand for computers, according to the principle “with other equal conditions We have reason to believe that it has remained unchanged. Therefore, the equilibrium price of computers has risen and the equilibrium quantity has fallen. If fewer computers are bought, then we can expect that fewer programmers and operators will be needed as well. This will mean a decrease in demand for the services of programmers and operators. As a result, there will be a decrease in the equilibrium price for the services of programmers and operators, i.e., their wages. So answer B is correct and answer A is wrong.
   Answers C and D. The information contained in the question is not sufficient to draw a definitive conclusion about what will happen to the producers' revenues. Revenue equals the product of the price and the number of goods sold. Computer prices have risen, but the number of computers sold has declined. Since it is not known which of these two effects - an increase in price or a decrease in the quantity of goods sold - will outweigh, it is impossible to say in which direction the revenue will change, or whether it will change at all. Thus, answers C and D are not correct.
   Test 2.13. The demand curve for good A is given by Q = 5 - 2P. What expression will be given to the total revenue from the sale of product A (TR)?
   A) TR \u003d 10 - 4P.
   B) TR \u003d 5P - 2P2.
   C) TR \u003d 25 - 20P + 4P2.
   D) Total revenue cannot be determined from the given data.
   The correct answer is B.
   The total proceeds from the sale of goods is equal to the product of the price by the number of goods sold (and therefore purchased). The quantity of goods that the buyer is willing to buy at a certain price is given by the expression Q = 5 - 2P. Thus,
   R = P x Q = P x (5 - 2P) = 5P - 2P2.
   Test 2.14. A horizontal demand curve is perfectly inelastic. Is this statement correct?
   a) yes;
   b) no.
   Correct answer: b).
   This statement is false because the horizontal demand curve is perfectly elastic. This means that the change in demand can be anything at a constant price. The coefficient of elasticity in this case tends to infinity.
   Test 2.15. If a 3% decrease in price causes a 9% decrease in quantity supplied, then the supply curve is elastic. Is this statement correct?
   a) yes;
   b) no.
   Correct answer: a).
   A supply is considered elastic if the elasticity coefficient is greater than one. In this case, it shows that a 1% decrease in price will result in a 3% decrease in volume. That is, the coefficient of elasticity is 3. It is greater than one, hence the supply is elastic.
   Test 2.17. Which of the following events will affect the price of cheese differently than the other three?
   A) Cattle feed prices skyrocketed.
   B) The milk yield of cows has increased.
   C) The consumption of butter instead of sunflower oil has sharply increased.
   D) The milk yield of cows has decreased.
   The correct answer is B.
   With an increase in the milk yield of cows, the supply of milk will increase and, as a result, milk prices will decrease. Milk is the raw material for cheese production. If the price of milk decreases, the costs of cheese producers will decrease, the supply of cheese will increase, and the equilibrium price of cheese will decrease.
   Answer A. In this situation, the following chain of events is likely to occur. The costs of milk producers will rise, as a result, the supply of milk will decrease, the price of milk will rise, the costs of producers of cheese will rise, the supply of cheese will decrease, the price of cheese will rise.
   Answer B. Here is a situation in which there will also be a decrease in the supply of cheese. The demand for butter has increased, and as a result, the equilibrium price for this product has risen. Following this, we can expect an increase in demand for milk (milk is also used in the production of butter). Accordingly, the price of milk will rise, the costs of producers of milk goods will rise, the supply of cheese will fall, and the equilibrium price of cheese will rise. In addition, some cheese producers can completely or partially "switch" to the production of butter - an increase in the price of this product will make its production more profitable, i.e., bringing higher profits. All this will also lead to a decrease in the supply of cheese and an increase in its equilibrium price.
   Answer D. This is the reverse of the correct answer B. A decrease in cow milk yield is likely to increase the price of cheese.
   Test 2.18. The introduction of subsidies by the government for each bus produced is likely to lead to ...
   A) to reduce the supply of buses;
   B) to increase the supply of buses;
   C) an increase in demand for buses;
   D) to increase the elasticity of the supply of buses.
   The correct answer is B.
   Bus manufacturers will be willing to sell each specific quantity at a lower price as the subsidies make up the difference. The supply of buses will increase - this will correspond to a shift in the supply curve to the right. Answer A, which refers to a decrease in the supply of buses, is therefore incorrect. At the same time, the introduction of subsidies in the short term does not affect the demand for buses, so answer B is also not correct.
   Answer D is incorrect, since the elasticity of supply for buses can only be increased if elasticity increases at each point on the supply curve. The coefficient of elasticity, as you know, is calculated by the formula E \u003d dQ / dP x P / Q. When a subsidy is introduced, the supply curve shifts parallel to the right (corresponding to an increase in the supply of buses). At the same time, the dQ/dP multiplier does not change, but the P/Q multiplier decreases, since at each specific price, the number of buses offered for sale increases. Accordingly, E decreases, and does not increase, as stated in the answer of G.